Given the nobility's attachment to what were their rights I personally would go with a firm no. But, like you rightly say, it depends on how far back you go as the evidence diminishes.
Those rights (and a body to oversee them) was a later development. Things were apparently somewhat different in the late 12thC. William Marshal, for example, was described in his biography as bearing the arms of William of Tancerville at a tournament - Marshal had been raised in Tancarville’s household and was knighted in his service) It is logical that there was some way to distinguish the Chamberlain of Tancarville from one of his knights, but we lack that detail for the moment.
It is noteworthy that one of Richard I’s household was able to convince Muslim ambushers to seize him rather than his master merely by shouting that he was the king. Given the amount of time the two forces had been operating in close proximity, it is possible that he was dressed similarly enough to fool an enemy amidst the rough and tumble of battle.